I know that those of my readers who are not Hispanists must be sick and tired of this kind of posts, but I have only four final essays more to grade, and then I promise that no more posts like this one will appear. I simply need to share this with my colleagues because otherwise I will explode.
A student just informed me that Melibea and Lazarillo de Tormes have a lot in common. For example, they both have to make a living by prostituting themselves. When Melibea's father discovers that his daughter has been selling her body to put food on their table (sic!), he becomes distraught. Lazarillo, in the meanwhile, sells sexual favors to a blind man AND to his mother's new husband.
Of course, there are also some differences between these works of literature. For instance, La Celestina belongs to the Romanticism while Lazarillo de Tormes is a Realist PLAY.
Now, a question for everybody. Is this student doing this just to bug me? This cannot possibly be written in earnest, right? Right?